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One time mathematician
Full time pedant
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@glynwolf@tiggi.es @IceWolf@masto.brightfur.net
a ÷ b ÷ c = a ÷ (b ÷ c) = a ÷ b x c
Can you justify the final equality?
I would write:
a ÷ b ÷ c = a ÷ (b ÷ c) = (a ÷ b) × c = (a × c) ÷ b
and if you like I'll justify those latter equalities using basic properties of arithmetical operations.
Having declared that division is right-associative, but not declared how we will handle expressions with mixed multiplication and division, we still have two choices of how to interpret a ÷ b × c: is it (a ÷ b) × c or a ÷ (b × c)? This is why I don't think you can justify your final equality without making a further notational convention.
If you adopt either of the conventions, "do division before multiplication" or "do mixed multiplication and division left-to-right" you will get your equality but no inconsistency. If you adopt either of the conventions "do multiplication before division" or "do mixed multiplication and division right-to-left" you will get the other equality, and again no inconsistency.
Note that, there IS an inconsistent option here: you cannot both have right-associative division AND do all divisions and multiplications from left to right, for the former necessitates that expressions consisting of multiple division operations be evaluated right-to-left.
What I should have said is that once you adopt the notation "numerator ÷ denominator" to express division, the rest follows as a logical consequence.
I still don't agree with this statement.
A different way of looking at this is that that notation tells us what to do with expressions involving two quantities only. You still need to adopt a notational convention on what to do with successive operations, unless you make it explicit with brackets.
I do think those examples are relevant, because for example, if any inconsistency flowed directly from adopting right-associativity for division written as "a ÷ b", there would be an inconsistency in APL, which use that notation (yes, with an obelus, not a slash) and right-associativity.
@glynwolf@tiggi.es @IceWolf@masto.brightfur.net but left associativity is itself a notational convention. It's not a fundamental property of division: you can't prove that the division operation has this property, you have to decide you're going to follow the convention, and could choose not to.
Furthermore, left associativity does not help you in a mixed expression like 12÷3×4. The author is using a nonstandard definition of left associativity and if you look it up on Wikipedia or in a textbook you will see it gives you that a÷b÷c = (a÷b)÷c, but doesn't say what to do when you have a multiplication instead of a second division.
In our schooling, left associativity of division is a consequence of our order of operations conventions which say directly to do multiplication and division in order from left to right. If you do this with a÷b÷c you can see you immediately get (a÷b)÷c!
Examples where this order is not chosen include:
- Reverse polish notation
- Calculators which evaluate strictly left to right (used to be the only way calculators worked)
- Strange programming languages like APL
- Dutch classrooms until they agreed to use the more common order (they used to do multiplication before division)
If left associativity were an inherent property of division, none of these would actually be capable of doing division, yet somehow they are.
Just because something is a standard term does not make it meaningful. It does not make the term resonant in one’s head.
No, practice and familiarity with the concept makes that happen.
Remember the point: the concept is something you need to understand in order to simulate quantum algorithms.
You must first understand and accept the proof that Hilbert space is a linear space of propositions
You can use a Hilbert space to indirectly represent certain kinds of propositions, if you are careful. You don't have a proof of this though: you have an assertion in your document. Look at it again; there is no proof there.
Are you ready to explain what tautological completeness is? Your reluctance to makes me wonder whether it is something which is merely "resonant" to you and yet has no definition.
Do you believe that, if the scientific consensus were correct, your program would need much longer to run?
You still have not explained why your program shows anything. No scientist has ever said that classical algorithms can't be fast in practice.
I apologise for belabouring these points, but you do seem to be ignoring them.
You are using far too many words and far too much of it is jargon such as ‘unitary operator’ that mean absolutely nothing.
"Unitary operator" is a standard term in mathematics; I learnt the definition during my degree. It is just a bounded linear operator U on a Hilbert space, such that UU = UU = the identity operator in that Hilbert space.
"Tautologically complete" on the other hand, is not. And you haven't defined it after I asked you to. Please tell me what it means.
Now that I have explained what a unitary operator means, please remember the point: that your implementation of Grover's algorithm uses non-unitary operations, so it does not simulate a quantum computer.
This is what makes it proof that ‘quantum computing’ is nonsense: it is finding the solution in a number of seconds that is supposed to be impossible.
Is this an answer to my question about Grover's algorithm? Do you believe that, if the scientific consensus were correct, your program would need much longer to run?
I have never heard any scientist say this or imply this. I think you are wrong that scientists believe this, and have misunderstood.
Grover's original paper ... has no quantum theory in it
Besides that the keyword "quantum" appears 52 times, and it makes liberal reference to the prior body of work on quantum computation, it expressed the algorithm in UNITARY operations, i.e. QUANTUM operations. Your algorithm does not manipulate the state via unitary operations.
No-one is surprised that your algorithm can complete in 2 iterations. An algorithm that doesn't use quantum operations could complete in 1 iteration using the same assumptions.
Parallel GPU
Parallelisation is a red herring here.
All the quantum computer researchers have to do is actually TRY sampling the register early
Of course they have tried that, but you believe in a conspiracy that prevents anything except consensus results being published. As such I see no point in discussing this, because your belief is not falsifiable, even in principle.
I note that you haven't tried any of the physical experiments that you say give different results than the present consensus.
Since your belief about physical experiments is not falsifiable, I am sticking to your claims that stem from theoretical considerations only.
I shall not try to refute them because you have not bothered even trying to make them correct.
Everything I write I make every attempt to get as correct as practical. I can only imagine you say this because I am persistent in disagreeing with you. I am quite clear about what would lead me to change my mind and am happy to remind you of what that is, if it would help.
is it that you are asking me for a proof of it within my iris number system
No, I'm not asking you for anything. I just found that topic more interesting, and you didn't reply to anything I said about it, which was disappointing. I wondered if my intro to recursion theory was useful, given you said you found oracles hard to understand.
On your number system, in the other thread, I asked you several questions, including two precise ones to hopefully turn the iris waffle into something usable.
I need help understanding what is supposed to be so interesting about the Halting Problem in this context.
It's where the idea of an oracle comes from. The Halting Problem is not otherwise directly relevant.
is that a tautologically complete system such as mine is guaranteed to be totally free of contradictions and paradox.
"Tautologically complete" is not a standard mathematical or logical term. What do you mean? It's certainly not complete in the usual sense in mathematical logic.
And how are you going to justify your assertion that it is free of contradictions? First, you haven't yet defined a full suite of assertions, because the iris analogy remains merely an analogy, and this beyond the reach of serious analysis. This is a grave disadvantage of your system. Second, any rigorous argument for consistency of a precisely defined system of mathematics must be performed in a strictly stronger system due to Gödel, so that avenue is ultimately of no help. Third, an appeal to the obviousness of axioms can also be made in Z_2, in KP, in ZF, or in Type Theory, or any other system - you have no advantage there whatsoever.
As a mathematical pluralist, I encourage you to use whichever axioms you find appealing. But there are no known inconsistencies in set theory, so you must be talking about some philosophical or aesthetic distaste. Fine - but then, why is that an "advantage" or make set theory "idiotic"? It's just your personal preference.
And once again, most importantly: your system is not yet a mathematical system. It can't be "absolutely trustworthy" if you can't write down all its axioms. You don't know there's no untrustworthy detail lurking in the iris analogy.