@IAmNorRealTakeYourMeds@lemmy.world
Post #3339765
2026-06-10 02:02 UTC
how the fuck i didn’t realize that!!!
Fuck,
so 1 in base pi is still 1, but 10 is pi
makes sense,
1 =pi ^ 0
10=pi^1
100 = pi^2
my intuition kept telling me that using an irrational base system would end up with all integers being irrational. didn’t realize how easy it is to prove it otherwise
ie, I had a very bad conjecture and I gained better understanding why it was wrong
Replies (1)
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@Trail@lemmy.world 2026-06-10 05:24
1 in base pi would be 1/π, wouldn’t it? Why 1?