Post #2668780
2026-05-18 13:45 UTC
@lapis@elekk.xyz Having done contract law in Europe, I am wondering why you think an open agreement to terms and a signification of agreement (a handshake) would not be legally binding. My intuition would be that U.S. law is even more agreeable to given words and would define agreeing to a deal to even smaller things than most European countries do. Is there something I am missing?
Replies (1)
-
@lapis@elekk.xyz 2026-05-18 14:01
@Cyan@girlcock.club I guess my lack of familiarity? Like you can verbally agree to some contracts yes, I suppose, part of it though is that he refused to sign a contract but did a "handshake deal" which I guess maybe it's just where I've lived. It doesn't feel legally binding because you did it instead of signing a contract. And there's other stuff (admittedly small claims court could probably sort this stuff out) but how does one notarize a handshake deal, that sort of thing